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FM0-304

1. A script saves a group of records as a PDF. The resulting file needs to be saved on a user's desktop
and the filename must contain that person's name along with the current date (without additional user
input).
How should the output file be specified in the script step?
A. Use a file path that references a variable containing the desired filename and path.
B. Use a file path that references a globally stored field containing the desired filename and path.
C. Use a file path defined by a calculation formula that uses both Get (DesktopPath) and the Get
(UserName) functions.
D. Use a file path that references a calculation field that uses both Get (DesktopPath) and the Get
(UserName) functions.
Answer: A


2. A table in a FileMaker Pro 10 database has a field CompanyName of type Text. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
Validate data in this field only during data entry
Allow user to override during data entry
Require not empty
Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName field.
What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. All of the records will be imported. The user will also see the custom error message.
C. None of the records will be imported. The user will also see the specified custom error message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will also see the specified
custom error message.
E. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog from the
FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors, along with a
count of those records.
Answer: A


3. Given the following Relationships Graph:w0VFM10256Y The users want to view a list of unique product
records purchased by a found set of customers from the state of NY.
If the data in the system supports this request and there are no changes to the Relationships Graph,
which two techniques successfully accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. On a layout based on Customer, include a portal based on the Product table occurrence. Find where
State = "NY".
B. On a layout based on Customer, Find where State = "NY". Navigate to a layout based on the
Products table. Select the menu Records > Saved Finds and choose "NY" under Recent Finds.
C. On a layout based on Customer, Find where State = "NY". Then run a script with the step Go To
Related Records[ ], using Match all records in current found set to navigate to the desired set of Product
records.
D. Run a script from a special Customer layout that performs a Copy All Records/Requests[ ] script step,
then navigates to a Product layout including a Customer portal, uses Paste[ ] into a Find request, and
finally Perform Find[ ] to result in the desired found set.
E. Use a script to loop through the found set of Customer records, assembling a set of ID values into a
global variable $$customers. Navigate to a layout based on Products and in Find Mode enter the
Customer::State field. Choose the menu Requests > Paste Requests and specify State = $$customers.
Click OK to perform the Find.
Answer: BC


4. Which two events can activate an OnObjectModify script trigger? (Choose two.)
A. selecting a checkbox
B. scrolling in a portal
C. scrolling in a text field
D. switching tabs in a tab control
E. clicking a link displayed in a Web Viewer
Answer: AD


5. What is a reason to use the Let() function in a formula for a FileMaker Pro 10 calculation field?
A. to limit the iterations of a Loop() function used in the formula

B. to modify data in a text field referenced elsewhere in the formula
C. to define a custom function that can be used in other calculation formulas
D. to set a global variable $$var that can be used elsewhere (e.g. within a script)
Answer: D

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SolarWinds Certified Professional Exam
SCP-500

1. The data center teamrequires that they be alerted if any of the servers in a remote site go
down.However, they do NOT want to receive alerts when the remote site connection goes down.
Which two configuration steps should you take within your network management system (NMS) to meet
these requirements? (Choose two.)
A.set up alerts on server status
B.set up alerts on the remote connection status
C.set each of the servers as dependencies for each other
D.set up the remote connection as a dependency for each of the servers
E.set up alerts on the remote router status
Answer:AD

2. What is an advantage of using SNMPv2c over using SNMPv1?
A.username parameter
B.get bulk command
C.get next command
D.32 bit counters
E.authentication and encryption
Answer:B

3. Whichtwo variables are used in the calculation of Percent Utilization? (Choose two.)
A.configured bandwidth
B.packets per second
C.buffer overruns
D.interface discards
E.bits per second
Answer:AE

4. Due to a server crash, you had to moveOrion to a new server with a new IP address.
Which two changes should you make to ensure thatOrion functions properly from the new server and IP
address? (Choose two.)
A.update the access control lists (ACLs) thatrestrict management protocols
B.change the IP address specified in the snmpd.conf file on the Orion server
C.update the source address for NetFlow packets exported to Orion
D.notify ARIN of the Orion server's new IP address
E.update the destination IP address for Syslog and SNMP traps on your managed devices
Answer:AE

5. You are monitoring your Internet connection, and your ISP has guaranteed512 Kbps. Historical data
shows that your connection speedholds at 256 Kbps for long periods of time, but never exceeds this
speed .
What does this indicate?
A.The ISP has misconfigured the link.
B.The WAN router is misconfigured.
C.The NAT table is overloaded.
D.QoS is dropping low priority traffic.
Answer:A

6. Your current deployment has multiple Orion NPM serversmonitoring multiplelocationsfrom a single site.
This is producing inaccurate dataandhigh WAN bandwidth utilization.
Whatare the twomost efficientways to address this issue? (Choose two.)
A.deploy Orion NPMat each remote location
B.deploy Orion Enterprise Operations Console
C.deploy an additional Orion Poller
D.deploy an additional Orion Web Server
E.deploy an Orion Hot Standby
Answer:AB

7. How does the Orion Universal Device Poller (UnDP) monitor a device's statistics that are notincludedin
the standard Orion NPM MIB database?
A.by manually associatingthe device'sOID to Orion
B.by keeping a copy of the device's MIB on the Orion NPM Server
C.by automatically searching the common MIB repositories and updating Orion
D.bymanually compiling the MIB into the Orion MIB database
E.bymanually compiling the OID into the Orion MIB database
Answer:A

8. Which protocol should a network engineer enable on routers and switches to collectutilization
statistics?
A.ICMP
B.SNMP
C.SMTP
D.WMI
Answer:B

9. A network engineer is enabling SNMP on their network devices and needs to ensureit will use message
integrity.
Which version of SNMP should they use?
A.SNMPv1
B.SNMPv2c
C.SNMPv3
D.SNMPv4
Answer:C

10. A network engineer notices the Syslog server's database is growingsignificantly in sizedue to thelarge
number of devices sending Syslog messages.
What should the engineer do to control database growth?
A.configure the Syslog server to discard unwanted messages
B.configure the devices and the Syslog server to use TCP-based Syslog
C.configure the devices and the Syslog server to use SNMPv3
D.configure the Syslog server to capture SNMP traps instead of Syslog
Answer:A

11. You have recently implemented a VoIP infrastructure within the company network. You are receiving
trouble tickets indicating calls are dropping between their New York and San Francisco offices.
Which two IP service level agreement (SLA) measurements should you use to identify the cause of the
issue?
A.latency
B.SIP
C.NetFlow
D.available bandwidth
E.jitter
Answer:AE

12. Which two performance metrics can be affected by proper QoS implementation? (Choose two.)
A.jitter
B.shaping
C.marking
D.queuing
E.latency
Answer:AE

13. Which network protocols are used by SolarWinds products during network discoveries?
A.ICMP and SMTP
B.DHCP and TFTP
C.PPTP and IMAP
D.ICMP and SNMP
Answer:D

14. Which two management protocols should you use to measure the effectiveness of your QoS
implementation? (Choose two.)
A.Syslog
B.SNMP
C.NetFlow
D.WMI
E.SSHv2
Answer:BC

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Other Oracle Certification
1Z0-216

1. Identify three purposes for which transaction types can be used. (Choose three.)
A. to record how cash can be applied to transactions
B. to set whether AutoInvoice validates transactions using IDs or values
C. to set whether transactions affect the Accounts Receivable (AR) customer balances
D. to record the accounting flexfield value that would be used for the cash account for transactions
E. to record the accounting flexfield value that would be used for the receivable account for transactions
F. to set transaction numbers to be either assigned automatically or entered manually for transactions
Answer: ACE

2. John is reviewing the clients draft training documents about the Order to Cash life cycle business
processes. Identify four steps that are included in the Order-to-Cash life cycle. (Choose four.)
A. launching pick release
B. performing credit check
C. reconciling bank statements
D. running AutoInvoice to Receivables
E. generating the move order manually
Answer: ABCD

3. A clerk from ABC Inc., receives a customer receipt that does not have sufficient information to identify
the customer or invoice. Which is the correct method of entering the receipt in Oracle Accounts
Receivable?
A. Enter the receipt as an unapplied receipt.
B. Enter the receipt as an unidentified receipt.
C. Enter the receipt as an on-account receipt.
D. Enter the receipt as a miscellaneous receipt.
E. Enter the receipt by applying it to a dummy customer account.
Answer: B

4. Identify two statements that apply to Oracle Collections. (Choose two.)
A. It is a Web-based self-service application.
B. It can be used to place an invoice in dispute.
C. It enables customers to see their own Oracle Receivables account information, such as balances.
D. It can be used to initiate the Oracle Approvals Management (AME) credit memo request workflow from
Oracle Collections.
Answer: BD

5. The end users at Lucy Ltd. noticed several AutoInvoice exceptions and requested your help in
correcting them. Which window allows you to edit data?
A. Line Errors window
B. Interface Lines window
C. Interface Exceptions window
D. Interface Corrections window
Answer: B

6. The client entered a miscellaneous receipt by mistake; it was posted to General Ledger. Now the
miscellaneous receipt needs to be reversed. Which method would you advise the client to use?
A. Carry out a standard reversal of the miscellaneous receipt.
B. Carry out a debit memo reversal of the miscellaneous receipt.
C. Create a receivable activity adjustment for the reversal of the miscellaneous receipt.
D. Create an adjustment in receivables for the reversal of the effect of the miscellaneous receipt.
E. Create a journal entry in General Ledger to reverse the accounting impact created by the posting of the
miscellaneous receipt.
Answer: A

7. Which rule must be applied when using summary accounts to create a mass allocation journal?
A. Constant (C) must be assigned to each rollup group that is used in the formula line.
B. Summing (S) must be assigned to each rollup group that is used in the formula line, so that the related
child values are summarized.
C. Looping (L) must be assigned to each rollup group that is used in the formula line, so that the
associated child values are incorporated in the calculation.
Answer: A